Question Of The Day: Musculoskeletal Disorders

Q. A nurse is caring for a client with lower back pain who is scheduled for myelography using metrizamide (a water-soluble contrast dye). After the test, the nurse should place the client in which position?

A. Head of the bed elevated 45 degrees
B. Prone
C. Supine with feet raised
D. Supine with the head lower than the trunk


Correct Answer: A

Explanation: After a myelogram, positioning depends on the dye injected. When a water-soluble dye such as metrizamide is injected, the head of the bed is elevated to a 45-degree angle to slow the upward dispersion of the dye. The prone and supine positions are contraindicated when a water-soluble contrast dye is used. The client should be positioned supine with the head lower than the trunk after an air-contrast study.

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Question Of The Day: Endocrine and Metabolic Disorders

Q. A client with type 1 diabetes must undergo bowel resection in the morning. How should the nurse proceed while caring for him on the morning of surgery?

A. Administer half of the client's typical morning insulin dose as ordered.
B. Administer an oral antidiabetic agent as ordered.
C. Administer an I.V. insulin infusion as ordered.
D. Administer the client's normal daily dose of insulin as ordered.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: If the nurse administers the client's normal daily dose of insulin while he's on nothing-by-mouth status before surgery, he'll experience hypoglycemia. Therefore, the nurse should administer half the daily insulin dose as ordered. Oral antidiabetic agents aren't effective for type 1 diabetes. I.V. insulin infusions aren't necessary to manage blood glucose levels in clients undergoing routine surgery.

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Question Of The Day: Gastrointestinal Disorders

Q. The comatose victim of the car accident is to have a gastric lavage. Which of the following positions would be most appropriate for the client during this procedure?

A. Lateral.
B. Supine.
C. Trendelenburg's.
D. Lithotomy.



Correct Answer: A

Explanation: An unconscious client is best positioned in a lateral or semiprone position because these positions allow the jaw and tongue to fall forward, facilitate drainage of secretions, and prevent aspiration. Positioning the client supine carries a major risk of airway obstruction from the tongue, vomitus, or nasopharyngeal secretions. Trendelenburg's position, with the head lower than the heart, decreases effective lung volume and increases the risk of cerebral edema. The lithotomy position has no purpose in this situation.

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Question Of The Day: Oncologic Disorders

Q. A young man with early-stage testicular cancer is scheduled for a unilateral orchiectomy. The client confides to the nurse that he is concerned about what effects the surgery will have on his sexual performance. Which of the following responses by the nurse provides accurate information about sexual performance after an orchiectomy?

A. "Most impotence resolves in a couple of months."
B. "You could have early ejaculation with this type of surgery."
C. "We will refer you to a sex therapist because you will probably notice erectile dysfunction."
D. "Because your surgery does not involve other organs or tissues, you'll likely not notice much change in your sexual performance."

Correct Answer:  D

Explanation: Although there may not be a big change in sexual function with a unilateral orchiectomy, the loss of a gonad and testosterone may result in decreased libido and sterility. Sperm banking may be an option worth exploring if the number and motility of the sperm are adequate. Remember, the population most affected by testicular cancer is generally young men ages 15 to 34, and in this crucial stage of life, sexual anxieties may be a large concern.

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Question Of The Day: Cardiovascular Disorders

Q. Before discharge, which instruction should a nurse give to a client receiving digoxin (Lanoxin)?

A. "Take an extra dose of digoxin if you miss one dose."
B. "Call the physician if your heart rate is above 90 beats/minute."
C. "Call the physician if your pulse drops below 80 beats/minute."
D. "Take digoxin with meals."


Correct Answer: B

Explanation: The nurse should instruct the client to notify the physician if his heart rate is greater than 90 beats/minute because cardiac arrhythmias may occur with digoxin toxicity. To prevent toxicity, the nurse should instruct the client never to take an extra dose of digoxin if he misses a dose. The nurse should show the client how to take his pulse and tell him to call the physician if his pulse rate drops below 60 beats/minute — not 80 beats/minute, which is a normal pulse rate and doesn't warrant action. The client shouldn't take digoxin with meals; doing so slows the absorption rate.

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Question Of The Day: Postpartum Period

Q. The nurse is assessing a client at her postpartum checkup 6 weeks after a vaginal delivery. The mother is bottle feeding her baby. Which client finding indicates a problem at this time?

A. Firm fundus at the symphysis.
B. White, thick vaginal discharge.
C. Striae that are silver in color.
D. Soft breasts without milk.


Correct Answer: A

Explanation: By 4 to 6 weeks postpartum, the fundus should be deep in the pelvis and the size of a nonpregnant uterus. Subinvolution, caused by infection or retained placental fragments, is a problem associated with a uterus that is larger than expected at this time. Normal expectations include a white, thick vaginal discharge, striae that are beginning to fade to silver, and breasts that are soft without evidence of milk production (in a bottle-feeding mother).

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Question Of The Day: Intrapartum Period

Q. A client with Rh isoimmunization gives birth to a neonate with an enlarged heart and severe, generalized edema. The neonate is immediately transferred to the neonatal intensive care unit. Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for the client?

A. Ineffective denial related to a socially unacceptable infection
B. Impaired parenting related to the neonate's transfer to the intensive care unit
C. Deficient fluid volume related to severe edema
D. Fear related to removal and loss of the neonate by statute

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Because the neonate is severely ill and needs to be placed in the neonatal intensive care unit, the client may have a nursing diagnosis of Impaired parenting related to the neonate's transfer to the neonatal intensive care unit. (Another pertinent nursing diagnosis may be Compromised family coping related to lack of opportunity for bonding.) Rh isoimmunization isn't a socially unacceptable infection. This condition causes an excess fluid volume (not deficient) related to cardiac problems. Rh isoimmunization doesn't lead to loss of the neonate by statute.

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Question Of The Day: Antepartum Period

Q. A client has an episiotomy to widen her birth canal. Birth extends the incision into the anal sphincter. This complication is called:

A. a first-degree laceration.
B. a second-degree laceration.
C. a third-degree laceration.
D. a fourth-degree laceration.




Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Birth may extend an episiotomy incision to the anal sphincter (a third-degree laceration) or the anal canal (a fourth-degree laceration). A first-degree laceration involves the fourchette, perineal skin, and vaginal mucous membranes. A second-degree laceration extends to the fasciae and muscle of the perineal body.

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Question Of The Day: Psychotic Disorders

Q. A client has refused to take a shower since being admitted 4 days earlier. He tells a nurse, "There are poison crystals hidden in the showerhead. They'll kill me if I take a shower." Which nursing action is most appropriate?

A. Dismantling the showerhead and showing the client that there is nothing in it
B. Explaining that other clients are complaining about the client's body odor
C. Asking a security officer to assist in giving the client a shower
D. Accepting these fears and allowing the client to take a sponge bath

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: By acknowledging the client's fears, the nurse can arrange to meet the client's hygiene needs in another way. Because these fears are real to the client, providing a demonstration of reality by dismantling the shower head wouldn't be effective at this time. Explaining that other clients are complaining about his body odor or asking a security officer to assist in giving the client a shower would violate the client's rights by shaming or embarrassing him.

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Question Of The Day: Mood, Adjustment, and Dementia Disorders

Q. The major goal of therapy in crisis intervention is to:

A. withdraw from the stress.
B. resolve the immediate problem.
C. decrease anxiety.
D. provide documentation of events.





Correct Answer: B

Explanation: During a period of crisis, the major goal is to resolve the immediate problem, with hopes of getting the individual to the level of functioning that existed before the crisis or to a higher level of functioning. Withdrawing from stress doesn't address the immediate problem and isn't therapeutic. The client's anxiety will decrease after the immediate problem is resolved. Providing support and safety are necessary interventions while working toward accomplishing the goal. Documentation is necessary for maintaining accurate records of treatment; it isn't a major goal.

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Question Of The Day: Foundations of Psychiatric Nursing

Q. A nurse is instructing a client with bipolar disorder on proper use of lithium carbonate (Eskalith), the drug's adverse effects, and symptoms of lithium toxicity. Which client statement indicates that additional teaching is required?

A. "I can still eat my favorite salty foods."
B. "When my moods fluctuate, I'll increase my dose of lithium."
C. "A good blood level of the drug means the drug concentration has stabilized."
D. "Eating too much watermelon will affect my lithium level."

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: A client who states that he'll increase his dose of lithium if his mood fluctuates requires additional teaching because increasing the dose of lithium without evaluating the client's laboratory values can cause serious health problems, such as lithium toxicity, overdose, and renal failure. Clients taking lithium don't need to limit their sodium intake. A low-sodium diet causes lithium retention. A therapeutic lithium blood level indicates that the drug concentration has stabilized. The client demonstrates effective teaching by stating his lithium levels will be affected by foods that have a diuretic effect, such as watermelon, cantaloupe, grapefruit juice, and cranberry juice.

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Question Of The Day: Toddler

Q. A child, age 3, is brought to the emergency department in respiratory distress caused by acute epiglottiditis. Which clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to assess?

A. Severe sore throat, drooling, and inspiratory stridor
B. Low-grade fever, stridor, and a barking cough
C. Pulmonary congestion, a productive cough, and a fever
D. Sore throat, a fever, and general malaise

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: A child with acute epiglottiditis appears acutely ill and clinical manifestations may include drooling (because of difficulty swallowing), severe sore throat, hoarseness, a high temperature, and severe inspiratory stridor. A low-grade fever, stridor, and barking cough that worsens at night are suggestive of croup. Pulmonary congestion, productive cough, and fever along with nasal flaring, retractions, chest pain, dyspnea, decreased breath sounds, and crackles indicate pneumococcal pneumonia. A sore throat, fever, and general malaise point to viral pharyngitis.

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Question Of the Day: Infant

Q. A 10-month-old child has cold symptoms. The mother asks how she can clear the infant's nose. Which of the following would be the nurse's best recommendation?

A. Use a cool air vaporizer with plain water.
B. Use saline nose drops and then a bulb syringe.
C. Blow into the child's mouth to clear the infant's nose.
D. Administer a nonprescription vasoconstrictive nose spray.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Although a cool air vaporizer may be recommended to humidify the environment, using saline nose drops and then a bulb syringe before meals and at nap and bed times will allow the child to breathe more easily. Saline helps to loosen secretions and keep the mucous membranes moist. The bulb syringe then gently aids in removing the loosened secretions. Blowing into the child's mouth to clear the nose introduces more organisms to the child. A nonprescription vasoconstrictive nasal spray is not recommended for infants because if the spray is used for longer than 3 days a rebound effect with increased inflammation occurs.

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Question Of The Day: The Nursing Process

Q. A nurse is documenting a variance that has occurred during the shift, and this report will be used for quality improvement to identify high-risk patterns and potentially initiate in-service programs. This is an example of which type of report?

A. Incident report.
B. Nurse's shift report.
C. Transfer report.
D. Telemedicine report.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: An incident report, also termed a variance report or occurrence report, is a tool healthcare agencies use to document anything out of the ordinary that results in or has the potential to result in harm to a client, employee, or visitor. These reports are used for quality improvement and not for disciplinary action. They are a means of identifying risks and high-risk patterns and initiating in-service programs to prevent future problems. A nurse's shift report is given by a primary nurse to the nurse replacing him or her or by the charge nurse to the nurse who assumes responsibility for continuing client care. A transfer report is a summary of a client's condition and care when transferring clients from one unit or institution to another. A telemedicine report can link healthcare professionals immediately and enable nurses to receive and give critical information about clients in a timely fashion.

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Question Of The Day: Medication and I.V. Administration

Q. To prevent development of peripheral neuropathies associated with isoniazid administration, the nurse should teach the client to:

A. Avoid excessive sun exposure.

B. Follow a low-cholesterol diet.

C. Obtain extra rest.

D. Supplement the diet with pyridoxine (vitamin B6).

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: Isoniazid competes for the available vitamin B6 in the body and leaves the client at risk for developing neuropathies related to vitamin deficiency. Supplemental vitamin B6 is routinely prescribed to address this issue. Avoiding sun exposure is a preventive measure to lower the risk of skin cancer. Following a low-cholesterol diet lowers the individual's risk of developing atherosclerotic plaque. Rest is important in maintaining homeostasis but has no real impact on neuropathies.

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Question Of The Day: Basic Physical Care

Q. A nurse is caring for a client who required chest tube insertion for a pneumothorax. To assess for pneumothorax resolution, the nurse can anticipate that the client will require:

A. monitoring of arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2).
B. arterial blood gas (ABG) studies.
C. chest auscultation.
D. a chest X-ray.


Correct Answer: D

Explanation: Chest X-ray confirms diagnosis by revealing air or fluid in the pleural space. SaO2 values may initially decrease with a pneumothorax but typically return to normal within 24 hours. ABG studies may show hypoxemia, possibly with respiratory acidosis and hypercapnia but these are not necessarily related to a pneumothorax. Chest auscultation will determine overall lung status, but it's difficult to determine if the chest has reexpanded sufficiently.

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Question Of The Day: Genitourinary Disorders

Q. When caring for a client after a closed renal biopsy, the nurse should?

A. Maintain the client on strict bed rest in a supine position for 6 hours.
B. Insert an indwelling catheter to monitor urine output.
C. Apply a sandbag to the biopsy site to prevent bleeding.
D. Administer I.V. opioid medications to promote comfort.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: After a renal biopsy, the client is maintained on strict bed rest in a supine position for at least 6 hours to prevent bleeding. If no bleeding occurs, the client typically resumes general activity after 24 hours. Urine output is monitored, but an indwelling catheter is not typically inserted. A pressure dressing is applied over the site, but a sandbag is not necessary. Opioids to control pain would not be anticipated; local discomfort at the biopsy site can be controlled with analgesics.

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Question Of The Day: Respiratory Disorders

Q. The physician ordered I.V. naloxone (Narcan) to reverse the respiratory depression from morphine administration. After administration of the naloxone the nurse should:

A. Check respirations in 5 minutes because naloxone is immediately effective in relieving respiratory depression.
B. Check respirations in 30 minutes because the effects of morphine will have worn off by then.
C. Monitor respirations frequently for 4 to 6 hours because the client may need repeated doses of naloxone.
D. Monitor respirations each time the client receives morphine sulfate 10 mg I.M.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: The nurse should monitor the client's respirations closely for 4 to 6 hours because naloxone has a shorter duration of action than opioids. The client may need repeated doses of naloxone to prevent or treat a recurrence of the respiratory depression. Naloxone is usually effective in a few minutes; however, its effects last only 1 to 2 hours and ongoing monitoring of the client's respiratory rate will be necessary. The client's dosage of morphine will be decreased or a new drug will be ordered to prevent another instance of respiratory depression.

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Question Of The Day: Neurosensory Disorders

Q. The client with a hearing aid does not seem to be able to hear the nurse. The nurse should do which of the following?

A. Contact the client's audiologist.
B. Cleanse the hearing aid ear mold in normal saline.
C. Irrigate the ear canal.
D. Check the hearing aid's placement.



Correct Answer: D

Explanation: Inadequate amplification can occur when a hearing aid is not placed properly. The certified audiologist is licensed to dispense hearing aids. The ear mold is the only part of the hearing aid that may be washed frequently; it should be washed daily with soap and water. Irrigation of the ear canal is done to remove impacted cerumen or a foreign body.

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Question Of The Day: Musculoskeletal Disorders

Q. A client has a herniated disk in the region of the third and fourth lumbar vertebrae. Which nursing assessment finding most supports this diagnosis?

A. Hypoactive bowel sounds
B. Severe lower back pain
C. Sensory deficits in one arm
D. Weakness and atrophy of the arm muscles



Correct Answer: B

Explanation: The most common finding in a client with a herniated lumbar disk is severe lower back pain, which radiates to the buttocks, legs, and feet — usually unilaterally. A herniated disk also may cause sensory and motor loss (such as footdrop) in the area innervated by the compressed spinal nerve root. During later stages, it may cause weakness and atrophy of leg muscles. The condition doesn't affect bowel sounds or the arms.

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Question Of The Day: Endocrine and Metabolic Disorders

Q. The best indicator that the client has learned how to give an insulin self-injection correctly is when the client can:

A. Perform the procedure safely and correctly.
B. Critique the nurse's performance of the procedure.
C. Explain all steps of the procedure correctly.
D. Correctly answer a posttest about the procedure.


Correct Answer:  A

Explanation: The nurse should judge that learning has occurred from evidence of a change in the client's behavior. A client who performs a procedure safely and correctly demonstrates that he has acquired a skill. Evaluation of this skill acquisition requires performance of that skill by the client with observation by the nurse. The client must also demonstrate cognitive understanding, as shown by the ability to critique the nurse's performance. Explaining the steps demonstrates acquisition of knowledge at the cognitive level only. A posttest does not indicate the degree to which the client has learned a psychomotor skill.

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Question Of The Day: Gastrointestinal Disorders

Q. A client has a nasogastric tube inserted at the time of abdominal perineal resection with permanent colostomy. This tube will most likely be removed when the client demonstrates:

A. Absence of nausea and vomiting.
B. Passage of mucus from the rectum.
C. Passage of flatus and feces from the colostomy.
D. Absence of stomach drainage for 24 hours.


Correct Answer: C

Explanation: A sign indicating that a client's colostomy is open and ready to function is passage of feces and flatus. When this occurs, gastric suction is ordinarily discontinued, and the client is allowed to start taking fluids and food orally. Absence of bowel sounds would indicate that the tube should remain in place because peristalsis has not yet returned. Absence of nausea and vomiting is not a criterion for judging whether or not gastric suction should be continued. Passage of mucus from the rectum will not occur in this client because the rectum is removed in this surgery.

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Question Of The Day: Oncologic Disorders

Q. The American Cancer Society recommends routine screening to detect colorectal cancer. Which screening test for colorectal cancer should a nurse recommend?

A. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) test after age 50
B. Proctosigmoidoscopy after age 30
C. Annual digital examination after age 40
D. Barium enema after age 20


Correct Answer: C

Explanation: The American Cancer Society recommends an annual digital examination after age 40 for the purpose of detecting colorectal cancer. The CEA test is performed on clients who have already been treated for colorectal cancer. It helps monitor a client's response to treatment as well as detect metastasis or recurrence. Proctosigmoidoscopy is recommended every 3 to 5 years for people older than age 50. Barium enema isn't a screening test.

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Question Of The Day: Cardiovascular Disorders

Q. A client with a past medical history of ventricular septal defect repaired in infancy is seen at the prenatal clinic. She is complaining of dyspnea with exertion and being very tired. Her vital signs are 98, 80, 20, BP 116/72. She has + 2 pedal edema and clear breath sounds. As the nurse plans this client's care, which of the following is her cardiac classification according to the New York Heart Association Cardiac Disease classification?

A. Class I.
B. Class II.
C. Class III.
D. Class IV.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: According to the New York Heart Association Cardiac Disease classification, this client would fit under Class II because she is symptomatic with increased activity (dyspnea with exertion). The New York Heart Association Cardiac Disease Classification identifies Class II clients as having cardiac disease and a slight limitation in physical activity. When physical activity occurs, the client may experience angina, difficulty breathing, palpations, and fatigue. All of the client's other symptoms are within normal limits.

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Question Of The Day: Postpartum Period

Q. After being treated with heparin therapy for thrombophlebitis, a multiparous client who delivered 4 days ago is to be discharged on oral warfarin (Coumadin). After teaching the client about the medication and possible effects, which of the following client statements indicates successful teaching?

A. "I can take two aspirin if I get uterine cramps."
B."Protamine sulfate should be available if I need it."
C. "I should use a soft toothbrush to brush my teeth."
D. "I can drink an occasional glass of wine if I desire."

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Successful teaching is demonstrated when the client says, "I should use a soft toothbrush to brush my teeth." Heparin therapy can cause the gums to bleed, so a soft toothbrush should be used to minimize this adverse effect. Use of aspirin and other nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications should be avoided because of the increased risk for possible hemorrhage. Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin therapy. Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin excess. Alcohol can inhibit the metabolism of oral anticoagulants and should be avoided.

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Question Of The Day: Intrapartum Period

Q. A nurse is assessing a woman in labor. Her cervix is dilated 8 cm. Her contractions are occurring every 2 minutes. She's irritable and in considerable pain. What type of breathing should the nurse instruct the woman to use during the peak of a contraction?

A. Deep breathing
B. Shallow chest breathing
C. Deep, cleansing breaths
D. Chest panting


Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Shallow chest breathing is used during the peak of a contraction during the transitional phase of labor. Deep breathing can cause a woman to hyperventilate and feel light-headed, with numbness or tingling in her fingers or toes. A deep, cleansing breath taken at the beginning and end of each breathing exercise can help prevent hyperventilation. Chest panting may be used to prevent a woman from pushing before the cervix is fully dilated.

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Question Of The Day: Antepartum Period

Q. A client who is 32 weeks pregnant presents to the emergency department with bright red bleeding and no abdominal pain. A nurse should first:

A. perform a pelvic examination.
B. assess the client's blood pressure.
C. assess the fetal heart rate.
D. order a stat hemoglobin and hematocrit.



Correct Answer: C

Explanation: The nurse should assess the fetal heart rate for distress or viability. She shouldn't attempt to perform a pelvic examination because of the possibility of placenta previa, which presents as bright red bleeding without abdominal pain. The nurse should assess the client's blood pressure after attempting to hear fetal heart tones. Ordering a hemoglobin and hematocrit is a physician intervention, not a nursing intervention.

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Work Environment Affects Nurses’ Job and Patient Outcomes

A comprehensive study has confirmed that across the world, the environment in which nurses’ work influences the quality of nursing care, nurses’ job outcomes and patient well-being. These findings should convince health administrators to give more attention to working environments, according to the researchers.

“Our results support the unique status of the nurse work environment as a foundation for both patient and provider well-being that warrants the resources and attention of health care administrators,” said Eileen Lake, the lead investigator. Lake is the Associate Director of the Center for Health Outcomes and Policy Research of the University of Pennsylvania School of Nursing.

Nurses’ work environment compared to outcomes

The research was an extensive meta-analysis of previous studies where measurements of nursing work environments were statistically compared to four outcomes. The first was nurse job outcomes in terms of burnout, job dissatisfaction and intention to leave. The second was nurses’ reports on the quality and safety of patient care and conditions in the unit.

Patient outcomes were analyzed based on 30-day inpatient mortality and adverse events. The final result included in the analysis was patient satisfaction, measured on patients’ ratings of the hospital.

The findings showed that in better working environments nurses were 28%-32% less likely to experience job dissatisfaction, burnout and intention to leave. The chances of poor quality and safety ratings were reduced by 23%-51%.

At the same time, the odds that patients were satisfied increased by 16% and the possibility of inpatient deaths and adverse events was reduced by 8% – nearly 1 in 10.

Rigorous study design

The value and strength of the above conclusions lie in the fact that they are a summary of extensive previous research, using a quantitative meta-analysis. Out of a possible 308 studies, 17 qualified for inclusion and they spanned 16 years. The studies represented research undertaken in 22 different countries across the world – in the US, UK, Canada, Europe, and Asia. Data from more than 2,600 hospitals, 165,000 nurses and 1.3 million patients were subjected to rigorous statistical analysis.

Only studies using the Practice Environment Scale of Nursing Work Index (PES-NWI) as a measurement were included in the research. This the most accepted tool for assessing nursing work environments. It covers quality care, nurse manager ability, adequacy of staffing and resources, and the relationships between colleagues. The tool is supported globally by quality, health professional and accreditation organizations.

Nurses’ work environments need attention

The researchers believed that the study provides conclusive evidence that nurses’ work environment is related to a wide range of outcomes both for the service provider and the patient. The findings are relevant not only for policymakers and health care administrators but also for nurses, patients, and their families.

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Question Of The Day: Substance Abuse, Eating Disorders, Impulse Control Disorders

Q. A client with a history of polysubstance abuse is admitted to the facility. He complains of nausea and vomiting 24 hours after admission. The nurse who assesses the client notes piloerection, pupillary dilation, and lacrimation. The nurse suspects that the client is going through withdrawal from which substance?

A. Alcohol
B. Cannabis
C. Cocaine
D. Opioids

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: Piloerection, pupillary dilation, and lacrimation are specific to opioid withdrawal. A client with alcohol withdrawal would show elevated vital signs. There is no real withdrawal from cannabis. Symptoms of cocaine withdrawal include depression, anxiety, and agitation.

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